Latest [Dec 07, 2024] CompTIA SY0-601 Real Exam Dumps PDF

SY0-601 Practice Test Questions Updated 1061 Questions

CompTIA Security+ certification exam, also known as SY0-601, is a globally recognized and respected certification that validates the knowledge and skills of individuals in the field of information security. It is designed to measure the competency of security professionals in areas such as risk management, cryptography, network security, and identity management. CompTIA Security+ Exam certification is vendor-neutral, which means that it is not tied to any specific technology or product, making it applicable to a wide range of security roles and industries.

 

NEW QUESTION # 567
Which of the following is best to use when determining the severity of a vulnerability?

• A. OSINT
• B. SOAR
• C. CVSS
• D. CVE

Answer: C

Explanation:
CVSS, or Common Vulnerability Scoring System, is a standard method for assessing the severity of software vulnerabilities based on various metrics and factors. CVE, or Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures, is a list of publicly disclosed vulnerabilities, but does not provide a severity score. OSINT, or Open Source Intelligence, is the collection and analysis of publicly available information, which may or may not be relevant to a specific vulnerability. SOAR, or Security Orchestration, Automation and Response, is a set of tools and processes that automate and streamline security operations and incident response.

NEW QUESTION # 568
A security analyst is receiving numerous alerts reporting that the response time of an internet-facing application has been degraded However, the internal network performance was not degraded. Which of the following MOST likely explains this behavior?

• A. DNS poisoning
• B. MAC flooding
• C. ARP poisoning
• D. DDoS attack

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 569
Security analysts are conducting an investigation of an attack that occurred inside the organization's network.
An attacker was able to coiled network traffic between workstations throughout the network The analysts review the following logs:

The Layer 2 address table has hundreds of entries similar to the ones above Which of the following attacks has most likely occurred?

• A. ARP poisoning
• B. DNS spoofing
• C. MAC flooding
• D. SQL injection

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 570
A company is concerned about weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime. Which of the following should the company consider?

• A. Clustering servers
• B. Geographic dispersion
• C. Off-site backups
• D. Load balancers

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 571
A dynamic application vulnerability scan identified code injection could be performed using a web form.
Which of the following will be BEST remediation to prevent this vulnerability?

• A. Implement input validations
• B. Deploy MFA
• C. Utilize a WAF
• D. Configure HIPS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 572
Which of the following components can be used to consolidate and forward inbound internet traffic to multiple cloud environments though a single firewall?

• A. Cloud hot site
• B. DNS sinkhole
• C. Transit gateway
• D. Edge computing

Answer: C

Explanation:
A transit gateway is a network transit hub that can be used to interconnect virtual private clouds (VPCs) and on-premises networks. A transit gateway can consolidate and forward inbound internet traffic to multiple cloud environments through a single firewall by offering the following features:
Attachments that can connect one or more VPCs, a Connect SD-WAN/third-party network appliance, an AWS Direct Connect gateway, a peering connection with another transit gateway, or a VPN connection to a transit gateway.
Transit gateway route table that can include dynamic and static routes that decide the next hop based on the destination IP address of the packet.
Associations and route propagation that can link each attachment with a route table and dynamically propagate routes to or from a transit gateway route table. Reference: What is a transit gateway? - Amazon VPC; Network Gateway - AWS Transit Gateway - Amazon Web Services; Configure VPN gateway transit for virtual network peering; AWS - Difference between VPC Peering and Transit Gateway

NEW QUESTION # 573
A penetration tester gains access to a network by exploiting a vulnerability on a public-facing web server. Which of the following techniques will the tester most likely perform NEXT?

• A. Move laterally throughout the network to search for sensitive information.
• B. Establish rules of engagement before proceeding.
• C. Gather more Information about the target through passive reconnaissance.
• D. Create a user account to maintain persistence.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 574
A police department is using the cloud to share information city officials Which of the cloud models describes this scenario?

• A. private
• B. pubic
• C. Hybrid
• D. Community

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
A community cloud model describes a scenario where a cloud service is shared among multiple organizations that have common goals, interests, or requirements. A community cloud can be hosted by one of the organizations, a third-party provider, or a combination of both. A community cloud can offer benefits such as cost savings, security, compliance, and collaboration. A police department using the cloud to share information with city officials is an example of a community cloud model.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails
https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives
https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/community-cloud

NEW QUESTION # 575
Which of the technologies is used to actively monitor for specific file types being transmitted on the network?

• A. Tcpreplay
• B. Honeynets
• C. File integrity monitoring
• D. Data loss prevention

Answer: D

Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) is a technology used to actively monitor for specific file types being transmitted on the network. DLP solutions can prevent the unauthorized transfer of sensitive information, such as credit card numbers and social security numbers, by monitoring data in motion.

NEW QUESTION # 576
A web server log contains two million lines. A security analyst wants to obtain the next 500 lines starting from line 4,600. Which of the following commands will help the security analyst to achieve this objective?

• A. cat webserver.log | tail -4600 | head -500 |
• B. cat webserver.log | tail -1995400 | tail -500 |
• C. cat webserver.log | head -5100 | tail -500 |
• D. cat webserver.log | head -4600 | tail +500 |

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
the cat command displays the contents of a file, the head command displays the first lines of a file, and the tail command displays the last lines of a file. To display a specific number of lines from a file, you can use a minus sign followed by a number as an option for head or tail. For example, head -10 will display the first 10 lines of a file.
To obtain the next 500 lines starting from line 4,600, you need to use both head and tail commands.
https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/file-manipulation-tools/

NEW QUESTION # 577
A network administrator needs to determine the sequence of a server farm's logs. Which of the following should the administrator consider? (Select two).

• A. Tags
• B. Hash values
• C. Time offset
• D. Reports
• E. Time stamps
• F. Chain of custody

Answer: C,E

Explanation:
A server farm's logs are records of events that occur on a group of servers that provide the same service or function. Logs can contain information such as date, time, source, destination, message, error code, and severity level. Logs can help administrators monitor the performance, security, and availability of the servers and troubleshoot any issues.
To determine the sequence of a server farm's logs, the administrator should consider the following factors:
* Time stamps: Time stamps are indicators of when an event occurred on a server. Time stamps can help administrators sort and correlate events across different servers based on chronological order. However, time stamps alone may not be sufficient to determine the sequence of events if the servers have different time zones or clock settings.
* Time offset: Time offset is the difference between the local time of a server and a reference time, such as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) or Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Time offset can help administrators adjust and synchronize the time stamps of different servers to a common reference time and eliminate any discrepancies caused by time zones or clock settings.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails
https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/server-manager/view-event-logs

NEW QUESTION # 578
An organization wants to integrate its incident response processes into a workflow with automated decision points and actions based on predefined playbooks. Which of the following should the organization implement?

• A. SOAR
• B. CASB
• C. SIEM
• D. EDR

Answer: A

Explanation:
Why is SOAR used? To synchronize tools, accelerate response times, reduce alert fatigue, and compensate for the skill shortage gap. To collaborate with other analysts during investigations. To analyze workload, organize an analyst's tasks, and allow teams to respond using their own processes.
EDR
The Endpoint Detection and Response Solutions (EDR) market is defined as solutions that record and store endpoint-system-level behaviors, use various data analytics techniques to detect suspicious system behavior, provide contextual information, block malicious activity, and provide remediation suggestions to restore ...

NEW QUESTION # 579
A security analyst wants to verify that a client-server (non-web) application is sending encrypted traffic. Which of the following should the analyst use?

• A. openssl
• B. netcat
• C. tcpdump
• D. hping

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 580
A company recently experienced a data breach and the source was determined to be an executive who was charging a phone in a public area. Which of the following would MOST likely have prevented this breach?

• A. A device pin
• B. Biometrics
• C. A USB data blocker
• D. A firewall

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 581
A retail company that is launching a new website to showcase the company's product line and other information for online shoppers registered the following URLs:

Which of the following should the company use to secure its website if the company is concerned with convenience and cost?

• A. An extended validation certificate
• B. A root certificate
• C. A wildcard certificate
• D. A self-signed certificate
• E. A code-signing certificate

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 582
A cybersecurity manager has scheduled biannual meetings with the IT team and department leaders to discuss how they would respond to hypothetical cyberattacks. During these meetings, the manager presents a scenario and injects additional information throughout the session to replicate what might occur in a dynamic cybersecurity event involving the company, its facilities, its data, and its staff. Which of the following describes
what the manager is doing?

• A. Developing an incident response plan
• B. Running a simulation exercise
• C. Conducting a tabletop exercise
• D. Building a disaster recovery plan

Answer: C

Explanation:
https://www.redlegg.com/solutions/advisory-services/tabletop-exercise-pretty-much-everything-you-need-to-know

NEW QUESTION # 583
A company recently added a DR site and is redesigning the network. Users at the DR site are having issues browsing websites.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each firewall to do the following:
* Deny cleartext web traffic.
* Ensure secure management protocols are used.
* Resolve issues at the DR site.
The ruleset order cannot be modified due to outside constraints.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Answer:

Explanation:
See explanation below.
Explanation
Firewall 1:


DNS Rule - ANY --> ANY --> DNS --> PERMIT
HTTPS Outbound - 10.0.0.1/24 --> ANY --> HTTPS --> PERMIT
Management - ANY --> ANY --> SSH --> PERMIT
HTTPS Inbound - ANY --> ANY --> HTTPS --> PERMIT
HTTP Inbound - ANY --> ANY --> HTTP --> DENY
Firewall 2:


Firewall 3:


DNS Rule - ANY --> ANY --> DNS --> PERMIT
HTTPS Outbound - 192.168.0.1/24 --> ANY --> HTTPS --> PERMIT
Management - ANY --> ANY --> SSH --> PERMIT
HTTPS Inbound - ANY --> ANY --> HTTPS --> PERMIT
HTTP Inbound - ANY --> ANY --> HTTP --> DENY

NEW QUESTION # 584
A well-known organization has been experiencing attacks from APIs. The organization is concerned that custom malware is being created and emailed into the company or installed on USB sticks that are dropped in parking lots. Which of the following is the BEST defense against this scenario?

• A. Enforcing S/MIME for email and automatically encrypting USB drives upon insertion.
• B. Fuzzing new files for vulnerabilities if they are not digitally signed
• C. Implementing application execution in a sandbox for unknown software.
• D. Configuring signature-based antivirus to update every 30 minutes

Answer: C

Explanation:
Encryption is the method by which information is converted into secret code that hides the information's true meaning. This does nothing for protecting a system. Encrypting bad code will just look different and mess up your system anyway.

NEW QUESTION # 585
Given the following snippet of Python code:
Which of the following types of malware MOST likely contains this snippet?

• A. Keylogger
• B. Backdoor
• C. Ransomware
• D. Logic bomb

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
A logic bomb is a type of malware that executes malicious code when certain conditions are met. A logic bomb can be triggered by various events, such as a specific date or time, a user action, a system configuration change, or a command from an attacker. A logic bomb can perform various malicious actions, such as deleting files, encrypting data, displaying messages, or launching other malware.
The snippet of Python code shows a logic bomb that executes a function called delete_all_files() when the current date is December 25th. The code uses the datetime module to get the current date and compare it with a predefined date object. If the condition is true, the code calls the delete_all_files() function, which presumably deletes all files on the system.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails
https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives
https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/logic-bomb

NEW QUESTION # 586
A company acquired several other small companies. The company that acquired the others is transitioning network services to the cloud. The company wants to make sure that performance and security remain intact. Which of the following BEST meets both requirements?

• A. High availability
• B. Application security
• C. Integration and auditing
• D. Segmentation

Answer: C

Explanation:
The integration of the appropriate level and quantity of security controls is a subject that is always being audited. Are the controls appropriate? Are they placed and used correctly? Most importantly, are they effective? These are standard IT audit elements in the enterprise. The moving of computing resources to the cloud does not change the need or intent of audit functions.

NEW QUESTION # 587
A Security engineer needs to implement an MDM solution that complies with the corporate mobile device policy. The policy states that in order for mobile users to access corporate resources on their devices, the following requirements must be met:
Mobile device OSs must be patched up to the latest release.
A screen lock must be enabled (passcode or biometric).
Corporate data must be removed if the device is reported lost or stolen.
Which of the following controls should the security engineer configure? (Select two).

• A. Disable firmware over-the-air
• B. Geofencing
• C. Full device encryption
• D. Remote wipe
• E. Posture checking
• F. Storage segmentation

Answer: D,E

Explanation:
Posture checking and remote wipe are two controls that the security engineer should configure to comply with the corporate mobile device policy. Posture checking is a process that verifies if a mobile device meets certain security requirements before allowing it to access corporate resources. For example, posture checking can check if the device OS is patched up to the latest release and if a screen lock is enabled. Remote wipe is a feature that allows the administrator to erase all data from a mobile device remotely, in case it is lost or stolen. This can prevent unauthorized access to corporate data on the device.

NEW QUESTION # 588
A research company discovered that an unauthorized piece of software has been detected on a small number of machines in its lab The researchers collaborate with other machines using port 445 and on the internet using port 443 The unau-thorized software is starting to be seen on additional machines outside of the lab and is making outbound communications using HTTPS and SMS. The security team has been instructed to resolve the issue as quickly as possible while causing minimal disruption to the researchers. Which of the following is the best course Of action in this scenario?

• A. Update the host firewalls to block outbound Stv1B.
• B. Place the machines with the unapproved software in containment
• C. Implement a content filter to block the unauthorized software communica-tion,
• D. Place the unauthorized application in a Bocklist.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Containment is an incident response strategy that aims to isolate and prevent the spread of an attack or compromise within a network or system. It can resolve the issue of unauthorized software detected on a small number of machines in a lab as quickly as possible while causing minimal disruption to the researchers by stopping the software from communicating with external sources using HTTPS and SMS and preventing it from infecting additional machines outside of the lab

NEW QUESTION # 589
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CompTIA SY0-601: Prerequisites

The CompTIA SY0-601 exam is intended for those individuals who want to establish a career in the cybersecurity domain. The biggest advantage of this certification test is that there are no prior requirements for it. There is no need to undertake any training or have any experience. The students just have to take a single exam whenever they are prepared. However, possessing working experience of two years in the IT administration field will be beneficial, but it is not necessary.

 

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