112-57 Actual Questions Answers PDF 100% Cover Real Exam Questions
112-57 Exam questions and answers
NEW QUESTION # 10
Which of the following Windows system files is created in the system drive after OS installation to support the internal functions and system service dispatch stubs to executive functions?
- A. Ntdll.dll
- B. Win32k.sys
- C. Ntoskrnl.exe
- D. Kernel32.dll
Answer: A
Explanation:
Ntdll.dllis the Windows user-mode system library that provides manyinternal NT functions(commonly exposed as "NT Native API" routines such asNt*/Zw*) and, critically, contains thesystem service dispatch stubsused by user-mode code to transition into kernel mode for operating system services. In standard Windows architecture, most user-mode applications call higher-level APIs (for example, Win32 APIs inKernel32.dll), which then ultimately rely onNtdll.dllto perform the final step of invoking the kernel through these system call stubs. This is whyNtdll.dllis a core component loaded into nearly every process and is tightly associated with the boundary between user mode and theexecutivecomponents of the OS.
From a forensics viewpoint, understandingNtdll.dllmatters because it is central to how processes request privileged services, and it is frequently referenced in analyses of process execution, API call chains, and certain user-mode hooking techniques used by malware or anti-forensics tools.
By contrast,Ntoskrnl.exeis the kernel image itself (core kernel/executive),Win32k.sysis a kernel-mode graphics/windowing subsystem component, andKernel32.dllprovides higher-level Win32 APIs rather than the primary system-call stub layer. Hence,Ntdll.dll (C)is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 11
Which of the following network protocols creates secure tunneling through which content obfuscation can be achieved?
- A. SNMP
- B. UDP
- C. SSH
- D. ARP
Answer: C
Explanation:
SSH (Secure Shell)is specifically designed to provide anencrypted channelover an untrusted network. In digital forensics and incident response, SSH is well known for supportingtunneling/port forwarding, where traffic for another protocol (for example, HTTP, database connections, or remote desktop) is encapsulated inside an SSH session. Because the SSH session encrypts payload data (and can also protect authentication and command content), the tunneled traffic becomesobfuscated to network monitoring toolsthat can only see metadata such as source/destination IPs, port numbers (often TCP/22), timing, and byte counts. This capability is frequently discussed in forensic references as a mechanism that can hinder content inspection and complicate attribution of user actions purely from packet payload analysis.
By contrast,SNMPis primarily for network management and monitoring, not secure tunneling.ARPresolves IP- to-MAC addresses on local networks and does not provide encryption or tunneling.UDPis a transport protocol that can carry data for many applications but provides no built-in security or tunneling features by itself.
Therefore, the protocol that creates secure tunneling enabling content obfuscation isSSH (C).
event logs) to establish user intent and sequence of actions. Therefore, the correct option isBrowsingHistoryView (B).
NEW QUESTION # 12
Which of the following measures is defined as the time to move read or write disc heads from one point to another on the disk?
- A. Access time
- B. Seek time
- C. Mean time
- D. Delay time
Answer: B
Explanation:
Seek timeis the specific performance measure that describes how long a hard disk drive's actuator takes tomove the read/write heads across the plattersfrom the current track (cylinder) to the target track where the requested data resides. In traditional magnetic HDDs, the heads must be physically repositioned before any sector can be read or written, making seek time a core component of mechanical latency.
Digital forensics materials emphasize understanding this distinction because HDD mechanical behavior affectsacquisition duration, the feasibility of repeated scans, and why imaging or carving operations can take longer on fragmented media. It also helps explain why solid-state drives (SSDs), which have no moving heads, do not have seek time in the same sense and therefore behave differently during large-scale reads.
The other choices are broader or unrelated:access timetypically refers to thetotal time to retrieve data, commonly combiningseek time + rotational latency + transfer time.Delay timeis not the standard term for head movement in disk performance definitions.Mean timeis incomplete as written and is usually part of reliability metrics like mean time between failures, not head positioning. Therefore, the correct measure for head movement time isSeek time (C).
NEW QUESTION # 13
While investigating a web attack on a Windows-based server, Jessy executed the following command on her system:
C:> net view <\10.10.10.11>
What was Jessy's objective in running the above command?
- A. Review file shares to ensure their purpose
- B. Check whether sessions have been opened with other systems
- C. Check file space usage to look for a sudden decrease in free space
- D. Verify the users using open sessions
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Windowsnet view \\<computer>command is used to enumerateshared resources(SMB shares) that a remote Windows system is publishing. When Jessy runsnet view \\10.10.10.11, her goal is to retrieve a list of the target host's visible shares-such as administrative shares (e.g.,C$,ADMIN$) and any custom shares created for departments, applications, or users. In forensic and incident-response practice, this is important because attackers commonly use SMB shares forlateral movement,staging tools,dropping payloads, andexfiltrating data. By reviewing the shares exposed by a suspected server, the investigator can quickly identify unexpected or overly permissive shares, locate potential repositories of web content or logs, and determine whether a compromised web server is also exposing file resources that expand the attacker's options.
The other options map to different commands and artifacts: disk space usage is checked with storage utilities (notnet view), open sessions are examined with commands likenet session, and identifying users accessing files typically involvesnet fileor server auditing logs. Therefore, Jessy's objective was toreview file shareson the remote host.
NEW QUESTION # 14
Sandra, a hacker, targeted Johana, a software professional, to steal her banking details. She started sending frequent, random pop-up messages with malicious links to her social media page. Johana accidentally clicked on a link, causing a malicious program to get installed in her system. Subsequently, when Johana attempted to access her banking website, the URL redirected her to a malicious website controlled by Sandra. Johana entered her banking credentials on the fake website, which Sandra then captured.
Identify the type of attack performed by Sandra on Johana.
- A. Tailgating
- B. Dumpster diving
- C. Pharming
- D. Shoulder surfing
Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario describes a victim beingredirected from a legitimate banking URL to a fraudulent websitewithout intending to visit it, after malware is installed on the system. This behavior is characteristic ofpharming, an attack in which an adversarycauses redirectionto a malicious destination even when the user types the correct address or clicks a legitimate bookmark. In digital forensics references, pharming is commonly achieved by manipulatingname resolution or routing mechanisms, such as altering the localhosts file, changingDNS server settings, poisoning DNS responses, modifying browser proxy settings, or installing malware that intercepts and rewrites web requests. The key forensic indicator is that the victim's request for the real domain is transparently diverted to attacker-controlled infrastructure, where credentials are harvested through a convincing spoofed login page.
The other options do not match the redirection-and-fake-site mechanism.Tailgatingis physical access abuse (following someone into a secure area).Dumpster divinginvolves retrieving sensitive information from discarded materials.Shoulder surfingis observing credentials by watching the victim type. Because the essential action here ismalicious redirection to a fake site to steal credentials, the correct answer isPharming (A).
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which of the following tools helps forensic experts analyze user activity in the Microsoft Edge browser?
- A. BrowsingHistoryView
- B. ChromeHistoryView
- C. MZHistoryView
- D. MZCacheView
Answer: A
Explanation:
In Windows forensics, analyzingMicrosoft Edgeuser activity commonly involves extracting and correlating browser artifacts such asvisited URLs, visit counts, timestamps, download references, and cached content indicators. A practical forensic approach is to use a tool that canparse and normalize history artifacts across multiple browsers, because investigations often require comparing activity between Edge and other installed browsers on the same workstation.BrowsingHistoryViewis designed specifically for that purpose: it aggregates browsing history from different browsers and presents it in a unified timeline-style view, which supports rapid triage and cross-validation of user activity.
By contrast,MZHistoryViewandMZCacheVieware associated withMozilla-family artifacts(history and cache), making them appropriate for Firefox-related examinations rather than Edge.ChromeHistoryViewis specialized forGoogle Chromehistory databases and does not target Edge artifacts as its primary source. In forensic workflow terms, a multi-browser history tool is valuable because it helps identify patterns such as repeated access to specific domains, time windows of browsing activity, and correlation with other Windows artifacts (prefetch, jump lists,
NEW QUESTION # 16
Williams, a forensic specialist, was tasked with performing a static malware analysis on a suspect system in an organization. For this purpose, Williams used an automated tool to perform a string search and saved all the identified strings in a text file. After analyzing the strings, he determined all the harmful actions that were performed by malware.
Identify the tool employed by Williams in the above scenario.
- A. Ezvid
- B. Snagit
- C. ResourcesExtract
- D. R-Drive Image
Answer: C
Explanation:
Instatic malware analysis, one of the quickest ways to infer capability is to extract and reviewstringsembedded in a binary. Strings frequently reveal command-and-control domains/IPs, mutex names, file paths, registry keys, user-agent values, suspicious commands (PowerShell/cmd), API names, error messages, encryption markers, and configuration fragments. Investigators often use automated utilities to extract these readable artifacts andexport them to a text filefor later triage, keyword searching, and correlation with other evidence (network logs, endpoint telemetry, and threat intel).
Among the provided options,ResourcesExtractbest matches this workflow. It is designed to extract embedded content from executable files-particularly Windows PE resources-and can export extracted textual items (including resource strings/strings tables and related embedded text) into external files for analysis. This aligns with "performed a string search and saved all the identified strings in a text file." The other choices do not fit:R-Drive Imageis a disk imaging/backup tool;Ezvidis for screen recording; andSnagitis for screenshots/screen capture. They do not perform automated extraction of strings from malware binaries as a static-analysis step. Therefore, the correct answer isResourcesExtract (B).
NEW QUESTION # 17
Which of the following tools can be used by an investigator to analyze the metadata of files in a Windows- based system?
- A. Bulk Extractor
- B. Tor browser
- C. Paraben P2 Commander
- D. IECachesView
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bulk Extractoris a digital forensics utility specifically designed to scan storage media (or forensic disk images) and automatically extractstructured artifacts and metadata-like featureswithout relying strictly on file system parsing. In Windows investigations, it is commonly used to identify and pull out items such as email addresses, URLs, domain names, credit card patterns, timestamps, GPS coordinates, and other feature records that can be treated as metadata indicators during triage and deep analysis. Because it works by scanning raw data blocks and producing feature reports, it can recover useful information even when files are deleted, partially corrupted, or when file system structures are damaged-conditions frequently encountered in forensic cases. Investigators use its outputs to correlate user activity, locate sensitive data exposure, and identify evidence-rich regions for further examination with file-level tools.
The other options do not match the requirement of analyzing file metadata broadly.Tor browseris an anonymity-focused web browser, not a forensic metadata analyzer.IECachesViewis a niche utility for viewing Internet Explorer cache/history artifacts rather than general file metadata analysis.Paraben P2 Commandertargets peer-to-peer investigations and related artifacts, not general metadata extraction across files. Therefore, the correct tool for analyzing metadata-like artifacts on a Windows-based system isBulk Extractor (A).
NEW QUESTION # 18
Cooper, a forensic analyst, was examining a RAM dump extracted from a Linux system. In this process, he employed an automated tool, Volatility Framework, to identify any malicious code hidden inside the memory.
Which of the following plugins of the Volatility Framework helps Cooper detect hidden or injected files in the memory?
- A. nmap -sU localhost
- B. ip addr show
- C. linux_netstat
- D. linux_malfind
Answer: D
Explanation:
In memory forensics, "hidden or injected" malicious code typically refers toprocess injection,code caves, unbacked executable mappings, or regions of memory that aremarked executablebut do not align with normal, file-backed program segments. The Volatility Framework provides specialized plugins to locate these suspicious patterns.linux_malfindis the plugin designed to detectpotentially injected codeby scanning a process's memory mappings for characteristics that commonly indicate malicious presence-such asexecutable anonymous mappings, unusual permissions (e.g., RWX), and memory regions that contain shellcode-like byte patterns. This is highly relevant when malware attempts to avoid disk artifacts by living in memory or by injecting payloads into legitimate processes.
By contrast,linux_netstatis used to enumerate network connections and sockets from memory (useful for C2 analysis), but it does not focus on injected code regions.ip addr showandnmap -sU localhostare live-system networking commands, not Volatility plugins, and they are not suitable for analyzing a captured RAM image.
Therefore, to detect hidden/injected malicious code in a Linux RAM dump using Volatility, the correct plugin islinux_malfind (A).
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which of the following folders of macOS stores all the files, documents, applications, library folders, etc.
pertaining to a particular user?
- A. Spotlight
- B. Home Directory
- C. Finder
- D. Time Machine
Answer: B
Explanation:
In macOS, each user account is assigned aHome Directorythat serves as the primary container for that user's data and profile-specific configuration. This directory typically resides under/Users/<username>/and includes standard subfolders such asDesktop,Documents,Downloads,Pictures,Movies,Music, and crucially the user' sLibraryfolder (~/Library). From a digital forensics standpoint, the Home Directory is one of the most important evidence locations because it holds user-generated content and a large volume of user activity artifacts: application preferences and settings (plist files), browser data, caches, saved state, key application databases, recent items, and other per-user traces. Although some applications are installed system-wide under
/Applications, macOS also supports per-user application storage and extensive per-user data under the Home Directory's Library structure.
The other options are not user-data containers.Spotlightis a search/indexing service (it creates indexes, not a user's complete data store).Time Machineis a backup mechanism that stores versioned backups rather than the live per-user working directory.Finderis the graphical file manager, not a storage folder. Therefore, the folder that stores files and user-specific libraries for a particular user is theHome Directory (D).
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following commands can an investigator use to parse GPTs of both types of hard disks, including those formatted with either UEFI or MBR?
- A. Get-BootSector
- B. Get-GPT
- C. Get-ForensicPartitionTable
- D. Get-PartitionTable
Answer: C
Explanation:
In forensic examinations, investigators must correctly interpret a disk'spartitioning schemebecause it determines where volumes begin, where file systems reside, and how to validate acquisition completeness.
Modern systems may useGPT(commonly associated with UEFI) while legacy systems often useMBR. A practical forensic command therefore needs to detect and parse partition informationregardless of whether the disk uses MBR or GPT, and present the results in a consistent, investigator-friendly output for verification and downstream analysis (e.g., selecting the correct partition offsets for imaging or mounting).
Get-ForensicPartitionTableis designed for exactly this role in forensic PowerShell tooling: it parses partition table structures in a forensically oriented manner and supports disks partitioned usingeither MBR or GPT.
That "forensic" emphasis typically means it reads raw structures directly, reports partition entries and offsets, and helps avoid ambiguity when the protective MBR (present on GPT disks) could confuse simplistic parsers.
By contrast,Get-BootSectortargets boot sector/VBR data rather than the full partition layout;Get-GPTis GPT- specific and does not cover MBR-only disks; andGet-PartitionTableis a more generic label that may not guarantee dual-scheme forensic parsing. Therefore, the correct option isC.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following types of phishing attacks allows an attacker to exploit instant messaging platforms by employing IM as a tool to spread spam?
- A. Pharming
- B. Spimming
- C. Whaling
- D. Spear phishing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Spimmingis defined in digital forensics and cybercrime references asspam over instant messaging (IM). It is a social-engineering variant where attackers use instant messaging platforms (and sometimes chat apps) to deliver unsolicited bulk messages containing malicious links, fraudulent offers, credential-harvesting lures, or malware downloads. Because IM messages are often delivered in real time and can appear to come from known contacts (via compromised accounts), spimming can achieve higher click-through rates than traditional email spam. For investigators, spimming incidents commonly leave artifacts such as chat logs, message timestamps, sender identifiers, embedded URLs, and sometimes downloaded payload traces on the endpoint.
These artifacts help establish attacker infrastructure (domains, IPs), victim interaction (click events, file creation), and timeline correlation with network logs.
The other options do not match the "IM as a tool to spread spam" description.Whalingtargets high-profile individuals via highly tailored phishing, typically email-based.Pharmingredirects users to fraudulent websites (often via DNS or host-file manipulation) without relying on bulk IM spam.Spear phishingis targeted phishing toward specific individuals or groups, not necessarily IM spam. Therefore, the phishing/spam attack that exploits instant messaging platforms isSpimming (C).
NEW QUESTION # 22
Clark, a security professional, identified that one of the systems in the organization is infected with malware and was used for creating a backdoor. Clark employed an automated tool to analyze the system's memory and detect malicious activities performed on the system.
In the above scenario, which of the following tools did Clark employ to detect malicious activities performed on the system?
- A. Wireshark
- B. Redline
- C. Shodan
- D. Medusa
Answer: B
Explanation:
The question specifies anautomated tool to analyze the system's memoryand detect malicious activity associated with amalware backdoor. In malware forensics and incident response practice, memory analysis is used to identify artifacts that may not be reliably visible on disk, such as injected code, hidden processes, suspicious DLLs/modules, live network connections, persistence objects loaded in memory, and indicators of compromise tied to backdoors.Redline(commonly referenced in DFIR training) is purpose-built forhost investigation and memory analysis. It can collect and analyze volatile data, including running processes, loaded modules, handles, drivers, network sessions, and other runtime indicators that help investigators spot malicious behavior and attribute it to specific executables or injected components.
The other options do not align with memory forensics.Medusais primarily a credential brute-force/login auditing tool, not a memory analysis utility.Shodanis an Internet-wide device search engine used for external reconnaissance, not for local host RAM inspection.Wiresharkis a packet capture and protocol analysis tool focused on network traffic, not automated memory artifact collection and analysis. Therefore, the tool Clark used to analyze memory and detect malicious activity isRedline (B).
NEW QUESTION # 23
A government organization decided to establish a computer forensics lab to perform transparent investigation processes on highly sensitive cases. The organization also decided to establish strong physical security around the premises of the forensics lab.
Which of the following security measures helps the organization in providing strong physical security to the forensics lab?
- A. Never keep the lab under surveillance
- B. Do not maintain a log register at the entrance of the lab
- C. Shield workstations from transmitting electromagnetic signals
- D. Never place fire extinguishers in and outside the lab
Answer: C
Explanation:
Forensics labs handling highly sensitive investigations must protect evidence confidentiality and prevent unauthorized disclosure. Strong physical security includes not only access control and surveillance, but also protections againstelectromagnetic (EM) emanationrisks. Computers and displays can unintentionally emit electromagnetic signals that, under certain conditions, may be intercepted and reconstructed to reveal sensitive information (for example, case notes, recovered evidence content, or credentials). Digital forensics lab design guidance recognizes this as a real threat in high-sensitivity environments and recommendsEM shielding / TEMPEST-style controlswhere appropriate. Shielding workstations reduces the chance of data leakage through side-channel interception and helps ensure that confidential investigative activities cannot be monitored from outside controlled areas.
The other options directly weaken physical security and safety. Fire extinguishers are required for facility safety and risk management, so "never place" them is unsafe and contrary to secure lab standards. Not maintaining an entrance log register undermines chain-of-custody support and accountability by removing a basic access auditing mechanism. "Never keep the lab under surveillance" removes a core deterrent and detection control for unauthorized entry, evidence tampering, and theft. Therefore, shielding workstations from transmitting electromagnetic signals is the only option thatstrengthensphysical security for a sensitive forensics lab.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Harry, a security professional, was hired to identify the details of an attack that was initiated on a Windows system. In this process, Harry decided to check the logs of currently running applications and the information related to previously uninstalled or removed applications for suspicious events.
Which of the following folders in a Windows system stores information on applications run on the system?
- A. C:\subdir
- B. C:\Windows\debug
- C. C:\Windows\Book
- D. C:\Windows\Prefetch
Answer: D
Explanation:
On Windows systems, thePrefetchfeature records execution-related artifacts to speed up subsequent program launches. When an executable is run, Windows often creates a.pf prefetch fileinC:\Windows\Prefetchthat contains valuable forensic indicators such as the executable name (mapped into the prefetch filename), last run time(s) (depending on Windows version), run count (in many versions), and a list of files and directories referenced during startup. Because these artifacts can persist even after an application is lateruninstalled or deleted, investigators commonly use the Prefetch directory to demonstrate that a program executed on a host and to help build timelines around suspicious activity. This is especially useful in intrusion investigations for identifying the execution of attacker tools, droppers, scripts launched via interpreters, or renamed binaries.
The other options are not standard repositories for program execution history.C:\Windows\debugmay contain specific debug logs for certain components but is not the canonical execution-tracking folder.C:
\Windows\BookandC:\subdirare not standard Windows forensic artifact locations. Therefore, the folder that stores information on applications run on the system isC:\Windows\Prefetch (C).
NEW QUESTION # 25
Bob, a forensic investigator, was instructed to review a Windows machine and identify any anonymous activities performed using it. In this process, Bob used the command "netstat -ano" to view all the active connections in the system and determined that the connections established by the Tor browser were closed.
Which of the following states of the connections established by Tor indicates that the Tor browser is closed?
- A. ESTABLISHED
- B. LISTENING
- C. TIME_WAIT
- D. CLOSE_WAIT
Answer: C
Explanation:
In Windows network forensics,netstat -anois commonly used to correlateTCP connection stateswithprocess identifiers (PIDs)to understand which application created or used a connection. When Tor Browser is actively communicating, outbound circuits typically appear asESTABLISHEDconnections to Tor relays (entry/guard nodes) or local loopback endpoints used by Tor components. After the browser is closed and the application tears down connections, Windows TCP/IP behavior often leaves recently closed sockets inTIME_WAIT.
TIME_WAITis a normal TCP state that appears after a connection has been actively closed. It exists to ensure delayed packets from the old session are not misinterpreted as belonging to a new session and to allow proper retransmission of the final ACK if needed. From an investigative standpoint, seeing Tor-related endpoints transition from ESTABLISHED toTIME_WAITstrongly indicates the sessions were terminated and the application is no longer maintaining live network traffic.
By contrast,CLOSE_WAITusually means the remote side has closed but the local application has not fully closed its socket yet,LISTENINGindicates a service waiting for inbound connections, andESTABLISHEDmeans the session is still active. Therefore,TIME_WAIT (B)best indicates Tor Browser connections have been closed.
NEW QUESTION # 26
James, a forensic specialist, was appointed to investigate an incident in an organization. As part of the investigation, James is attempting to identify whether any external storage devices are connected to the internal systems. For this purpose, he employed a utility to capture the list of all devices connected to the local machine and removed suspicious devices.
Identify the tool employed by James in the above scenario.
- A. ESEDatabaseView
- B. DriveLetterView
- C. ProcDump
- D. PromiscDetect
Answer: B
Explanation:
The requirement is tolist devices connected to a local Windows machine, specifically to identifyexternal storage devicesthat may be attached and potentially used for data theft or malware introduction. In Windows forensic practice, investigators often start by enumerating currently mounted volumes and recently connected removable media so they can correlate device presence with suspicious activity timelines and user actions.
DriveLetterViewis a utility designed to display the complete mapping ofdrive letters to storage devices
/volumes, includingremovable drives(USB flash drives, external HDDs), optical media, network-mapped drives, and local partitions. It helps quickly identify what storage devices are present and accessible on the system at the time of inspection, which fits the scenario where James captures a list of connected devices and removes suspicious ones.
The other tools do not match this purpose.ESEDatabaseViewis used to inspect Extensible Storage Engine databases, not enumerate attached storage.ProcDumpis used for creating process memory dumps for debugging/forensic analysis of processes, not for listing connected drives.PromiscDetectrelates to detecting network interfaces in promiscuous mode (packet sniffing), not external storage enumeration. Therefore, the correct tool for identifying connected storage devices isDriveLetterView (C).
NEW QUESTION # 27
Alice and John are close college friends. Alice frequently sends emails to John attaching her pics with friends.
One day, Alice sent an email to John describing all the details related to the final year project without specifying the actual purpose. John missed the message as he frequently receives emails from her and did not arrive for a project seminar.
Which of the following email fields could Alice have used in the above scenario to highlight the importance of the email?
- A. Date
- B. Bcc
- C. Subject
- D. Cc
Answer: C
Explanation:
TheSubjectfield is the primary email header element used to communicate thepurpose and urgencyof a message at a glance. Digital forensics training emphasizes that email messages consist ofheaders(routing and descriptive metadata) and abody(content). Among user-visible header fields, the Subject line is specifically intended to summarize what the email is about, helping recipients prioritize and correctly interpret the message without opening it. In the scenario, John routinely receives casual emails from Alice (often with pictures). When Alice sent a project-related email "without specifying the actual purpose," John treated it like routine mail and overlooked its significance. A clear, descriptive subject such as "Final Year Project Seminar
- Attendance Required" would have flagged the message as time-sensitive and different from her usual emails, reducing the chance it would be missed.
The other options do not serve this purpose.Dateis automatically assigned and mainly supports ordering and timeline reconstruction rather than highlighting importance.CcandBcccontrol who receives copies and can affect visibility or secrecy, but they do not summarize intent for the recipient. Therefore, the field best suited to highlight importance isSubject (A).
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following steps in forensic readiness planning provides a backup for future reference and assists in presenting evidence in a court of law?
- A. Determining the sources of evidence
- B. Creating a process for documenting the procedure
- C. Keeping an incident response team ready to review the incident
- D. Identifying the potential evidence required for an incident
Answer: B
Explanation:
In forensic readiness planning, the goal is to ensure that when an incident occurs, the organization can collect, preserve, and present digital evidence in a manner that remainsreliable, repeatable, and legally defensible. A key requirement for courtroom acceptance is cleardocumentation-often referred to as proper documentation and chain-of-custody support-showing what actions were taken, by whom, when, using which tools, and under what conditions. Creating a defined process for documenting procedures ensures investigators consistently record acquisition steps, handling methods, hashing/verification results, storage locations, access history, and any changes in evidence possession. This documentation becomes a "backup" in the sense that it preserves institutional memory of the investigation steps, allowing future reviewers (auditors, opposing experts, courts) to reconstruct and validate what occurred even long after the incident.
While identifying potential evidence (B) and determining evidence sources (C) are important readiness tasks, they do not themselves create the structured record needed to defend evidence integrity. Keeping an incident response team ready (D) supports operational response, but does not directly ensure admissibility. Therefore, the step that provides future reference and supports court presentation isCreating a process for documenting the procedure (A).
NEW QUESTION # 29
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